CAMLPR Transfusion Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• When is an elution performed?
• Nucleic acid testing (NAT) of donor blood reduces residual risk of which infections?
• Which substance would neutralize Anti-Chido/Rogers?
• What does serum neutralize?
• In a patient recovering from colon cancer, ABO grouping shows a discrepancy. What is the most likely cause?
• If a patient has antibodies against high-incidence antigens, what is the recommended course of action?
• Which storage conditions are correct for RBCs, platelets, and plasma?
• What is transfusion-related immunomodulation (TRIM) and its potential clinical implications?
• Which option best describes a positive control example for anti-C testing?
• In a major crossmatch situation with a positive screening cell that has not been investigated, what is the next essential laboratory step?
• In an elderly patient, reverse grouping discrepancy due to low antibodies, what testing modification is recommended?
• What does breast milk neutralize?
• What is the purpose of documenting transfusion reactions?
• How does crossmatching help ensure transfusion safety?
• Which genotype corresponds to the Lewis phenotype Le(a+b-)?
• How does partial antigen matching affect alloimmunization risk in chronically transfused patients?
• What best describes a minor crossmatch, and when is it performed?
• Which statement correctly describes the antigens that are negative on a unit designated D-C-E-c+e+?
• Why is iron management important for patients who receive chronic transfusions?
• Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) detects sensitization that occurred in which location?
• If there is 3+ reactions in all screening cells and all three potential donors are incompatible. What is a cause and solution?
• Which are the third-order genes?
• If a DAT yields agglutination due to saline contaminated with bacteria, what is this referred to?
• An ABO discrepancy shows a weak D phenotype. Which explanation best fits this finding?
• Which of the following best lists warm reacting antibodies?
• Which finding favors a diagnosis of TACO over TRALI?
• In ABO saliva testing, when is the f antigen expressed?
• Why are barcoding and clerical checks critical before issuing blood?
• A newborn baby ABO grouping scenario shows Anti-A: 0, Anti-B: 2+, Anti-D: 4+, A1 Cells: 0, B Cells: 0. What explains this discrepancy?
• How is fresh frozen plasma typically stored according to local policy?
• Which infectious disease screenings are routinely performed on donor blood?
• Based on the following serology, which antibody is suspected? Anti-A 4+, Anti-B 0, Anti-D 0, RhC 0, A1 Cells 2+, B cells 3+, SCI 3+, SCII 3+, SCIII 3+, Adult O cells 4+, Cord O cells 1+.
• What does urine neutralize?
• How is the definition of massive transfusion evolving and what is its practical implication?
• What special considerations apply to transfusion in neonates?
• In a patient with a bacterial infection, ABO testing shows polyagglutination. Which statement best describes this finding?
• How is pediatric transfusion volume typically estimated?
• What does Lewis substance neutralize?
• What is the principle of the Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)?
• What is an electronic crossmatch and when is it performed?
• In which scenario are washed red blood cells particularly useful?
• If there is ever a situation where only one current determination of a patient's ABO group is available, what do you do?
• In antibody screen panel interpretation, what is the Rule of 3?
• An autoantibody pattern indicates what about the antibody?
• A recently transfused patient shows anti-A 2+ in forward typing and B 3+ in reverse typing. What is the probable cause?
• Which technique is used to reveal true ABO grouping in the presence of cold autoantibodies?
• AHG stands for what in transfusion testing?
• What are the initial steps when a transfusion reaction is suspected?
• Which antibody is directed against the P1 antigen?
• Why is Rh(D) typing critical in transfusion and obstetric practice?
• Interpret the saliva inhibition test results: Saliva + Anti-A + A cells: +; Saliva + Anti-B + B cells: 0; Saliva + Anti-H + H cells: 0. What is the most likely secretor group?
• What is the primary purpose of crossmatching donor RBCs with recipient plasma?
• Which statement best describes a balanced transfusion approach during massive transfusion?
• During suspected transfusion reactions, which sample collection is indicated for repeat ABO/Rh typing and DAT?
• Delayed transfusion reactions can occur because some antibodies are not detectable at the time of screening; which example is given?
• What is the purpose of pretransfusion crossmatching?
• Which of the following is not warm reacting?
• In managing neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia, how are platelets transfused?
• In stable, nonbleeding adults, what Hb threshold is commonly used as a red blood cell transfusion trigger?
• What is the purpose of the IS phase?
• Which antigen is well developed in adulthood?
• Lewis inheritance: Lele HH sese yields which phenotype?
• Based on the following serology results: Anti-A 4+, Anti-B 0', Anti-D 4+, RhC 0, A1 Cells 0, B cells 4+, Dolichos biflorus 4+. What is the ABO/Rh group indicated?
• What best describes a major crossmatch?
• Which antibodies are cold reacting?
• What is autologous transfusion and when is it used?
• To confirm polyagglutination due to bacterial action, which panel is used?
• The primary purpose of barcode verification in pre-transfusion processing is to prevent which type of error?
• Which ABO/Rh group corresponds to the following serology: Anti-A 4+, Anti-B 4+, Anti-D 0, RhC 0, A1 Cells 0, B cells 0, Dolichos biflorus 0?
• In a case of suspected ABO incompatibility where the ABO type is unknown or not readily available, what is the safest approach to RBC transfusion?
• Which statement best describes the Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)?
• Why might plasma be sourced from male donors to reduce TRALI risk?
• Which antibodies are commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
• Steps to manage an anaphylactic transfusion reaction and the next transfusion plan?
• In a suspected transfusion-related hemolytic reaction, what does elevated plasma free hemoglobin indicate?
• What is the purpose of the saline (RhC) control?
• Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) detects sensitization that occurred in which location?
• What is the primary purpose of irradiating blood components in selected patients?
• A pregnant patient typed as Le(a+b-), but has begun producing anti-Lea. What happened?
• Distinguish immediate-spin crossmatch from antibody-based (AHG) crossmatch.
• In transfusion testing, which antibodies influence the selection of antigen-negative RBC units?
• Which pathogens are typically screened by donor testing and how is NAT used?
• Which antibody group is associated with malarial resistance?
• Which antigen is well developed at birth?
• Which of the following lists the signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR)?
• How can TRALI be distinguished from TACO in a patient with respiratory distress after transfusion?
• Based on saliva inhibition test results, what is the secretor status? Saliva + Anti-A + A cells: +; Saliva + Anti-B + B cells: +; Saliva + Anti-H + H cells: +.
• Which antibodies are enhanced by enzymes (papain, bromelin, ficin, trypsin)?
• If a positive auto control is identified during crossmatching, what is the typical next step?
• Cryoprecipitate is indicated for which condition?
• Which steps help prevent ABO-incompatible transfusion?
• What is the commonly used prophylactic platelet transfusion threshold in non-bleeding adults?
• Which antibodies can demonstrate mixed-field reactions?
• Which statement about alloabsorption is true?
• What is the purpose of the 37C phase?
• What is an antibody screen and how does it guide transfusion?
• In ABO backward typing, what is the purpose of A1 Cells and B Cells?
• If RhC is negative, which antigen is absent from the red cells?
• What are the benefits of leukoreduction in blood products?
• A patient with multiple myeloma shows rouleaux on ABO testing. What is the corrective action?
• Which antibodies are known to bind complement?
• What is the purpose of the Comb's control in the ABO testing procedure?
• What is a common reason for crossmatch incompatibility when all screening cells react strongly and all donor units are incompatible, and what is the recommended course of action?
• A patient has been grouped as O Rh negative. All screening cells and antibody panels are positive with no rouleaux suspected. All crossmatches are incompatible. What is the likely explanation?
• When should irradiated blood components be used?
• Rh immune globulin is administered to which patients?
• Which antibodies can show hemolysis?
• Which situation is an indication for fresh frozen plasma (FFP) transfusion?
• What is the principle of the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)?
• Which of the following is a key feature of a massive transfusion protocol?
• Which factor can cause false negative ABO grouping, necessitating further testing for an ABO variant?
• Which ABO/Rh group corresponds to the following serology: Anti-A 4+, Anti-B 0', Anti-D 0, A1 Cells 2+, B cells 4+, Dolichos biflorus 0?
• Which antibody is enhanced by the addition of 0.2N HCl, which decreases pH to 6.5?
• Mixed-field reaction antibodies are most typically demonstrated with which group?
• Which facility is typically consulted when complex antibodies against high-incidence antigens are suspected?
• What is the purpose of hemovigilance?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes alloantibodies from autoantibodies in transfusion testing?
• If a DAT yields panagglutination due to patient serum contaminated with bacteria causing the serum to agglutinate all RBCs, what is this called?
• Which antibodies show dosage?
• Which antibodies are destroyed by enzymes?
• What is the purpose of washing red blood cells before testing?
• Which statement is true about the D antigen in transfusion compatibility?
• What is the purpose of extended antigen matching in sickle cell disease patients?
• What would be the best positive control for anti-C?
• What is the purpose of leukoreduced blood products?
• Anti-D alloimmunization during pregnancy can cause which condition?
• During a major crossmatch for additional units, a 3+ reaction occurs and there is a previously uninvestigated positive screening cell. What is the cause and recommended action?
• How do the I and i antigens develop over time?
• In RBC antigen notation, what does the designation D-C-E-c+e+ indicate about the unit?
• Which term describes panagglutination caused by bacteria contaminating patient serum during DAT testing?
• When must a sample be obtained for pretransfusion testing?
• ABO grouping discrepancy due to cold reactive antibodies. Which description best fits this cause?
• Why is phenotyping performed for a patient who will receive daratumumab?
• A patient with hypogammaglobulinemia shows an ABO discrepancy after 4C enhancement. What is the likely cause and corrective step?
• Lewis inheritance: Lele HH Sese yields which phenotype?
• Which of the following sets are the second-order genes?
• What is the purpose of the AHG phase?
• Which antibody is unaffected by enzymes, though the antigen can be destroyed with sulfhydryl reagents?
• When a screening cell positive has not been investigated, what is the appropriate action?
• Which Lewis genotype results in the phenotype Le(a-b-)?
• If only one ABO determination is on file, what is the safest approach for red blood cell transfusion?
• What microscopic finding indicates rouleaux formation in a sample?
• Which laboratory technique may be used to enhance detection of weak ABO antigens in cancer-related discrepancies?
• In an ABO discrepancy case with suspected acquired B antigen, which test helps confirm acquired status?
• Washed red blood cells are indicated to which of the following?
• What is the effect of leukoreduction on transfusion reactions?
• Identify the blood group from this serology: Anti-A 0, Anti-B 4+, Anti-D 4+, RhC 0, A1 Cells 4+, B cells 0, Dolichos biflorus 0?
• What is the standard approach when there is only one ABO determination on file for a patient requiring red blood cell transfusion?
• In a patient with a bacterial GI infection, ABO grouping shows a discrepancy. Which finding would explain an acquired B antigen?
• Why are both room-temperature and 4C incubation steps used when testing for low-titer antibodies in reverse grouping?
• Why is irradiation of blood products used?
• Which result best distinguishes the A1 subgroup from A2 in serology?
• A technologist performing an ABO minor crossmatch experiences a 4+ reaction. What is the likely cause and the recommended action?
• How should transfusion choices be adjusted for sickle cell disease patients with alloimmunization risk?
• A patient has anti-E, and crossmatching results in a delayed reaction days later. The patient is identified as R1R1 and crossmatched with a unit labeled D-C-E-c+e+. What happened?
• An individual has anti-A1 antibody; to which ABO subgroup is this most commonly associated?
• What is the purpose of autoabsorption?
• Which lectin is used to differentiate A1 from A2 subgroups?
• How does leukoreduction affect CMV risk in transfusions?
• What is the purpose of alloabsorption?
• What would be the best negative control for anti-C?
• If the direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is positive, which step is required to identify the underlying antibody?
• How do apheresis platelets compare to random donor platelets?
• Describe the antibody identification process using panel cells.
• Which condition helps detect weakened ABO antigens by incubation?
• Which component is included in maintaining a balanced transfusion mix during a massive transfusion protocol?
• Which antibodies are associated with HDFN?
• Which antibody is not associated with HDFN?
• After a positive antibody screen, what is the next step in transfusion planning?
• When the direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is positive, what is recommended before attempting phenotyping?
• How is ABO blood group determined in pretransfusion testing?
• Which statement best describes the AHG phase significance in antibody testing?
• During crossmatching, if a strong reaction is observed and there is uncertainty about patient identity, what is the recommended action?
• Which step addresses an ABO false positive caused by rouleaux?
• What is the first-line treatment for an anaphylactic transfusion reaction?
• Which of the following is a cold-reacting antibody?
• Which two Rh antibodies commonly occur together?
• What is the common dose of packed red blood cells per kilogram in pediatric patients?
• Which Lewis genotype results in the phenotype Le(a+b-)?
• What is the role of plasma transfusion in correcting coagulopathy?
• What is the direct antiglobulin test (DAT) and its role in transfusion?
• Which statement reflects donor exposure management in neonates?
• Which of the following sets represents the first-order genes for the system?
• In monitoring anti-D during pregnancy, a fourfold rise in titer is considered significant.
• What is the difference between whole blood, packed RBCs, and washed RBCs?
• What is the role of tranexamic acid in surgical patients regarding transfusion?
• If a suspected anti-D cannot be excluded for anti-C or anti-E, what should the technologist do?
• Based on the following pattern, which antibody is suspected? Anti-A 4+, Anti-B 0, Anti-D 4+, A1 Cells 1+, B Cells 3+, SCI 3+, SCII 3+, SCIII 3+, Adult O cells 4+, Cord O cells 0.
• What is the recommended storage temperature for red blood cells?
• Which factors increase the risk of RBC alloimmunization?
• What is the primary purpose of pretransfusion testing?
• What does the genotype rr indicate in terms of C antigen status?
• A patient recently transfused with multiple ABO types may show which pattern in forward typing?
• When a DAT with polyspecific AHG is positive but a subsequent test shows no reactivity with anti-IgG or anti-C3D, what is the most likely explanation?
• How is febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR) defined and managed?
• What is the purpose of crossmatching donor units?
• Enchinococcus cysts, salmon roe, and pigeon egg whites neutralize which antibody?
• How does NAT affect window period risk in donor screening?
• Which ABO/Rh group corresponds to the following serology: Anti-A 4+, Anti-B 4+, Anti-D 4+, RhC 0, A1 Cells 2+, B cells 4+, Dolichos biflorus 0?
• What is the best initial step when unexpected reactivity is observed in screening cells?
• Based on the following reactivity pattern, which antibody is suspected? Anti-A 0, Anti-B 0, Anti-D 4+, RhC 0, A1 Cells 4+, B Cells 4+, SCI 3+, SCII 3+, SCIII 3+, Adult O cells 4+, Cord O cells 1+.
• Why is preoperative iron supplementation used to reduce transfusion needs?
• Which tests are typically included in a transfusion reaction workup for suspected AHTR?
• When is antibody identification particularly important?
• Which antibody groups are capable of binding complement?
• What does being a secretor mean in ABO testing?
• Which statement about the AHG phase is correct?
• Cryoprecipitate provides which components?
• Hemovigilance programs aim to improve patient safety by which process?
• What does ZZAP denature?